Uploaded July 2026 | Updated September 2026, 2 weeks ago
So just a few examples… This is really easy to demonstrate. Let’s go to Romans 1:13. Paul’s writing:
13 I do not want you to be unaware, brothers, that I have often intended to come to you…
What, he doesn’t want the men in the church to be ignorant of this, but it’s fine if the women are ignorant of it? The women don’t need to know that he really wanted to visit them? That just doesn’t make sense.
Romans 7:4:
4 Likewise, my brothers [adelphoi], you also have died to the law through the body of Christ, so that you may belong to another, to him who has been raised from the dead, in order that we may bear fruit for God.
The women don’t need to do that? Just the men? It’s only the men who’ve died to the Law through the body of Christ that they may bear fruit for God? Women are included in this. I could just go on and on and on and on with these kinds of examples. I’m not going to belabor the point, but I think it’s worth bringing up.
Do not be misled, either by English translations or by the rhetoric that goes with this, that it’s always inappropriate to have a gender-neutral translation. If I were doing this, I’d say, “…to the holy ones and faithful men and women in Christ at Colossae,” because hey, there’s faithful women there, too. And elsewhere, Paul uses the very same term to obviously include women in what he’s talking about. It’s just transparently obvious.
Read the full article: drmsh.com/which-bible-translation-a-few-thoughts
#BibleStudy #GreekLanguage #BibleTranslation #RomansChapter #BiblicalTheology
So just a few examples… This is really easy to demonstrate. Let’s go to Romans 1:13. Paul’s writing:
13 I do not want you to be unaware, brothers, that I have often intended to come to you…
What, he doesn’t want the men in the church to be ignorant of this, but it’s fine if the women are ignorant of it? The women don’t need to know that he really wanted to visit them? That just doesn’t make sense.
Romans 7:4:
4 Likewise, my brothers [adelphoi], you also have died to the law through the body of Christ, so that you may belong to another, to him who has been raised from the dead, in order that we may bear fruit for God.
The women don’t need to do that? Just the men? It’s only the men who’ve died to the Law through the body of Christ that they may bear fruit for God? Women are included in this. I could just go on and on and on and on with these kinds of examples. I’m not going to belabor the point, but I think it’s worth bringing up.
Do not be misled, either by English translations or by the rhetoric that goes with this, that it’s always inappropriate to have a gender-neutral translation. If I were doing this, I’d say, “…to the holy ones and faithful men and women in Christ at Colossae,” because hey, there’s faithful women there, too. And elsewhere, Paul uses the very same term to obviously include women in what he’s talking about. It’s just transparently obvious.
Read the full article: drmsh.com/which-bible-translation-a-few-thoughts
#BibleStudy #GreekLanguage #BibleTranslation #RomansChapter #BiblicalTheology
