Jeff A. Benner | My 2nd Question to the KJVOs @ancienthebreworg | Uploaded September 2010 | Updated October 2024, 27 minutes ago.
In my previous question to the KJVOs I asked what the "perfect" translation of the Bible was for Hebrew speakers.
What I found out was, and I did not know this about the KJVOs was that the majority of them believe that the KJV is the "only perfect" translation. There argument is that God uses the dominant language of the world to preserve his word.
So, my 2nd question to the KJVOs is this. If God uses the dominate language of the world to preserve his word, which is English today and Greek 2000 years ago. Why did he chose to use a very obscure language like Hebrew, which was only spoken by a small handful of people, to give his original message? Why didn't he use the dominate language of that day, which would have been Egyptian or Akkadian?
In my previous question to the KJVOs I asked what the "perfect" translation of the Bible was for Hebrew speakers.
What I found out was, and I did not know this about the KJVOs was that the majority of them believe that the KJV is the "only perfect" translation. There argument is that God uses the dominant language of the world to preserve his word.
So, my 2nd question to the KJVOs is this. If God uses the dominate language of the world to preserve his word, which is English today and Greek 2000 years ago. Why did he chose to use a very obscure language like Hebrew, which was only spoken by a small handful of people, to give his original message? Why didn't he use the dominate language of that day, which would have been Egyptian or Akkadian?
