Solving the integral of ln(x) from 1 to ? is equal to 2 @blackpenredpen
Solving the integral of ln(x) from 1 to ? is equal to 2 @blackpenredpen
Uploaded May 2024 | Updated September 2026, 3 weeks ago
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I want the area under the curve y=ln(x) from 1 to some number t to be 2, but how can we achieve this? Not only do we have to use calculus integration by parts, but we also need to use the Lambert W function to solve the resulting equation for us.

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Solving the integral of ln(x) from 1 to ? is equal to 2

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